That is because when the revolution tookover, the secular Iranians or say the sympathisers of the Shah fled abroad. They have been living abroad since then and have 3 generations.
They have little to do with Islamic Iran as they have a stance similar to the USA and they consume alcohol like mineral water.
Dear Sir or Madam
Whether the kharbooza falls on the knife or the knife falls on the kharbooza, it is the melon that gets sliced. The 1979 revolution is recognised simply as the revolution, and whether it meets the technical definition of a revolution is irrelevant. When Pervez Musharraf seized power, he claimed it was not martial law but a temporary takeover. Historians have consistently referred to it as a coup.
Why do we have to compare each revolution to the French Revolution when the monarch and their descendants were slaughtered on the streets.
I have responded to Sir LulladaPull regarding overseas Iranians in the quoted section.
Yours Sincerely
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